Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers - Right Job Alert

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021

The Obstetrics and Gynecology Multiple Choice Question Answers- 100 Nos published here on 06/06/2021

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021 – Question No 1 to 25

Question 1:-All are TRUE regarding Fetomaternal unit in pregnancy EXCEPT

A:-Progesterone production by the placenta is largely independent of the quantity of precursor available, the utero-placental perfusion and fetal well-being

B:-There is a 17 alpha hydroxylase enzyme block in the fetus and placenta has very little 3 beta hydroxyl steroid dehydrogenase activity

C:-Cholesterol and pregnenolone are obtained mainly from the maternal bloodstream for placental progesterone synthesis

D:-In human syncytiotrophoblast, estradiol increases progesterone production by means of an increase in LDL uptake

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-All are TRUE statements about Corpus luteum of Pregnancy EXCEPT

A:-Progesterone is largely produced by the corpus luteum until about 10 weeks of gestation

B:-Pulsatile luteinizing hormone (LH) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) from the implanting pregnancy stimulate progesterone production by the corpus luteum

C:-In the luteal phase of conception cycles, progesterone concentrations increase from about 1-2 mg/mL on the day of the LH surge to a plateau of approximately 10-35 mg/mL

D:-The transitional luteo-placental shift takes place between the  10tℎ week and 12tℎ week

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question3:-The FALSE statement regarding the glycoprotein hormone Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is

A:-A maximal level of about 100,000 IU/L in the maternal circulation is reached at 8-10 weeks of gestation

B:-Long half-life of hCG (48 hours) is due mainly to the greater amino acid content of beta subunit

C:-Hyperglycosylated hCG is the major circulating form of hCG regulating trophoblastic invasion in the first weeks of normal pregnancies

D:-β-hCG can be detected in maternal blood about the eighth day after ovulation or one day after implantation

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question4:-Find out the FALSE statement regarding human parturition

A:-The initiating step in the sequence of events leading to parturition could bean increase in fetal ACTH and cortisol secretion and an increase in placental CRH

B:-There is a definite decline in peripheral blood levels of progesterone prior to parturition and not just a functional withdrawal

C:-An increase in estrogen levels in maternal blood begins at 34-35 weeks

D:-The activity of 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase decreases in the myometrium and the chorion during labor and causes increase in prostaglandins associated with

parturition

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question5:-All the following statements about fetal lung surfactant are TRUE EXCEPT

A:-Phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) and phosphatidylglycerol (PG) are present in only small concentrations until the last 5 weeks of pregnancy

B:-At 20-22 weeks of pregnancy, a less stable and less active lecithin, palmitoyl-myristoyl lecithin, is formed

C:-At about the 30tℎ

week of gestation, there is a sudden surge of dipalmitoyl lecithin, the major surfactant lecithin

D:-The Sphingomyelin concentration of amniotic fluid changes relatively little throughout pregnancy and prior to 34 weeks, the Lecithin : Sphingomyelin L/S ratio is approximately

1 : 1

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers

Question6:-All the following are TRUE statement about gonadal differentiation EXCEPT

A:-It now appears that both testis and ovary differentiation require dominantly acting genes

B:-SRY activation of SOX 9 may be all that is necessary to activate other genes important to testis development

C:-WNT4 and R-Spondin 1(RSPO1) genes team to promote ovary development via repression of SOX9

D:-Ovarian differentiation is considered the “default” pathway of sexdetermination the automatic result in the absence of a testis-determining factor

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-All are TRUE statements about Complete Androgen Insensitivity EXCEPT

A:-One in three phenotypic sisters of an affected individual may have an XY karyotype but 40% may not have a family history

B:-The normal testes produce normal amounts of AMH and testosterone and absent spermatogenesis, serum LH levels are increased and the serum FSH usually is in the normal

range

C:-They present with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent or scant pubic and axillary hair, a short vagina and an absent cervix and uterus

D:-Gonadectomy generally is best done before puberty because the overall risk for tumor development is 30%

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-The FALSE statement regarding Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is

A:-An females, the classic forms of CAH (with and without salt wasting) are characterized by genital ambiguity and is most commonly due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency

B:-Two-thirds of patients with 11β-hydroxylase deficiency exhibit hypotension and hypokalemia

C:-Females with the non-classical “late-onset” form of 21-hydroxlyased deficiency have normal external genitalia and present later, during early adolescence with precocious

puberty or other signs of hyperandrogenism such as hirsutism

D:-Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency is based on a high serum concentration of 17-OH Progesterone

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question9:-The FALSE statement about Puberty in humans is

A:-“diphasic” pattern of gonadotropin secretion from infancy to puberty results primarily from a high sensitivity to low levels of gonadal steroid feedback

B:-central GABA signaling is one of the factors that restrains GnRH neuronal activity during childhood

C:-glutamate signaling may play a role in the resurgence of pulsatile GnRH secretion at the onset of puberty

D:-hypothalamic kisspeptin-GPR54 signaling is a key component of the neurobiologic mechanism that triggers the onset of puberty

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question10:-All are TRUE regarding premature ovarian Insufficiency (POI) EXCEPT

A:-In all patients under age 30 with a diagnosis of POI, a karyotype should be obtained

B:-Women with POI should be offered testing for FMR1 premutations

C:-Women with POI should be screened for antiadrenal antibodies and for antithyroid antibodies

D:-Likelihood of achieving pregnancy after diagnosis of POI is about 60-80% and donor eggs are rarely required for IVF

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-The FALSE statement regarding PolyCystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) is

A:-AMH production is increased severalfold in anovulatory PCOS

B:-Those with PCOS generally exhibit altered GnRH pulse frequency, increased serum LH concentrations and low-normal FSH levels

C:-Insulin acts synergistically with LH to perpetuate ovarian androgen production and also inhibits hepatic SHBG production

D:-Insulin resistance due to obesity also causes increased leptinsignalling and increased adiponectin levels, there by decreasing fatty acid oxidation and promoting lipotoxicity

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question12:-Identify the FALSE statement about Metformin

A:-Metformin increases insulin sensitivity up to 20% and decreases fasting glucose by about 5%

B:-Metformin decreases weight and BMI by 3-5%

C:-Metformin has no effect on lipolysis and HDL cholesterol

D:-Metformin improves the chronic inflammatory state in women with hyperinsulinemia

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-All statements regarding Familial cancers are TRUE EXCEPT

A:-about 15-20% of women who develop ovarian cancer have mutations in BRCA1 gene

B:-Prophylacticsalpingo-oophorectomy reduces the risk of ovarian cancer by about 90% and the risk of breast cancer by about 50%

C:-Risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy is recommended at age 35 or when childbearing is complete for patients carrying BRCA1 mutations and by age 40 in BRCA2 carriers

D:-The use of combined oral contraceptives is likely to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, but the effect on breast cancer risk is uncertain

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question14:-All are TRUE about Tamoxifen EXCEPT

A:-Tamoxifen is selective estrogen receptor modulator, having both estrogen receptorantagonist and agonist properties, depending on the tissue

B:-The incidence of endometrial cancer quadrupled with 5 years of tamoxifen treatment

C:-Levonorgestrel intrauterine device (IUD) is not effective to protect the endometrium against hyperplasia and polyps in women using tamoxifen

D:-Tamoxifen is associated with an ultrasonographic image that is characterized by sonolucent changes that are subepithelial in the presence of atrophic epithelium

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question15:-Identify the FALSE statement about Endometrial Hyperplasia

A:-Lesions without atypia basically represent only exaggerated forms of persistent proliferative endometrium and are associated with little risk (1-3%) for progression to

adenocarcinoma

B:-Atypical endometrial hyperplasia does not often spontaneously regress and has significant risk (10-30%) of progression to adenocarcinoma if left untreated

C:-There is significant risk (upto 40%) of an unrecognized adenocarcinoma in endometrial hyperplasia with atypia

D:-Biopsy is not indicated when the clinical history suggests long-term unopposed estrogen exposure but the endometrial thickness is 5-12 mm

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question16:-STRAW stage-3a is characterized by

A:-menstrual cycles are relatively unchanged, the serum levels of FSH are low, AMH and inhibin B are low

B:-menstrual cycles become shorter, FSH increases, while AMH, AFC and inhibin B declines

C:-periods of amenorrhea lasting greater than or equal to 60 days, FSH level in menopausal range, vasomotor symptoms such as hot flushes

D:-undetectable AMH, Inhibin and occasional antral follicle

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question17:-The FALSE statement regarding Menopausal Hormone Therapy (MHT/HRT) is

A:-Continuous, combined estrogen-progestin regimens of HRT has more risk for endometrial cancer than long-term sequential regimens

B:-Ospemifene is given orally for the treatment of vulvar and vaginal atrophy

C:-Bazedoxifene combined with conjugated estrogens is effective for hot flushes and vaginal atrophy, prevents bone loss and does not stimulate the endometrium or cause breast

tenderness

D:-The use of tibolone in women with a history of breast cancer remains relatively contraindicated

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-All the statements about Emergency Contraception are TRUE EXCEPT

A:-Copper IUD can be used anytime during the preovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle and upto 8 days after ovulation

B:-Ulipristal acetate is slightly more effective than the single 1.5-mg dose of levonorgestrel when used within 120 hours

C:-Mifepristone prevents about 80-85% of expected pregnancies and has the same efficacy and side effects as levonorgestrel method

D:-Treatment with Levonorgestrel acts primarily by preventing or delaying ovulation and by preventing fertilization

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question19:-The FALSE statement about etonogestrel Implant (Nexplanon) is

A:-Inhibits ovulation by preventing LH surge and failure rate is 0.01%

B:-Implants have an immediate contraceptive effect when inserted within the first 7 days of a menstrual cycle

C:-Implants should not be inserted immediate postpartum

D:-It is absolutely contraindicated in women with active thromboembolic disease or known breast cancer

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question20:-All the statements about reproductive ageing are TRUE EXCEPT

A:-Age related Oocyte aneuploidy results primarily from premature separation of sister chromatids during meiosis I or from whole chromosome nondisjunction during meiosis II

B:-Miscarriage riks and the prevalence of aneuploidy oocytes are relatively low and change little until approximately age 35

C:-Live birth rates in donor egg IVF cycles relate to the age of the donor, not the age of the recipient

D:-Aging itself is thought to be a significant factor influencing uterine endometrial response to steroids and receptivity

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question21:-Identify the FALSE statement regarding Test for Ovarian Reserve

A:-Total number of antral follicles measuring 2-10 mm in both ovaries is proportional to the number of primordial follicles remaining

B:-Small antral follicles (2-6 mm) are likely the primary source of AMH because they contain larger numbers of granulosa cells and a more developed microvasculature

C:-Recent studies suggest AMH levels decrease with the use of oral contraceptives and GnRH agonists

D:-A single elevated Day -3 FSH concentration (>10 IU/L) has high specificity for predicting poor response to stimulation or failure to achieve pregnancy

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question22:-Find the FALSE statement

A:-The prevalence of uterine anomalies in infertile women and fertile women with normal reproductive outcomes is similar, approximately 2-4%

B:-Submucousmyomas reduce IVF success rates by approximately 70% and intramural myomas by approximately 20-40%

C:-Hysteroscopic polypectomy may improve reproductive performance in infertile women

D:-Conception and term delivery rates after successful hysteroscopiclysis of intrauterine adhesions are > 80%

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question23:-The FALSE statement regarding Male infertility is

A:-2-5% of men with severe oligospermia and 8% of men with azoospermia may have Y chromosome microdeletions

B:-Hyperprolactinemia and treatment with GnRH analogs or androgens can cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism in males

C:-Men with idiopathic infertility have significantly lesser CAG trinucleotide repeat lengths in androgen receptor gene

D:-Disorders of estrogen synthesis or action may be associated with infertility in men

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question24:-Risk factors for Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS) include all EXCEPT

A:-Young age

B:-Higher BMI

C:-Higher AMH and AFC

D:-Higher serum Oestradiol

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question25:-Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) – Find the FALSE statement

A:-Can be used to detect numerical chromosomal aneuploidies and monogenic disorders but not structural rearrangements

B:-Chromosomal composition of the oocyte may be inferred from that of the extruded polar bodies

C:-One or two blastomeres may be removed from cleavage stage embryos

D:-Biopsy of the trophectoderm can be performed at the blastocyst stage and has become the most commonly used technique

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021 – Question No 26 to 50

Question26:-Medical management of endometriosis – Find the FALSE statement

A:-Approximately 85% of women with endometriosis and pelvic pain who are treated with GnRH agonists experience relief of their pain

B:-Dienogest is effective in improving endometriosis-associated pain and may even help overcome progesterone resistance by increasing the number of progesterone receptors

C:-Estrogen-progestin contraceptives is cytoreductive and halts progression of endometriosis in upto 90% of affected women when taken continuously

D:-The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device is of value in women with deep infiltrating rectovaginal endometriosis in reducing pain and dysmenorrhea recurrence following

surgical therapy

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding Ectopic pregnancy

A:-the overall risk of recurrence is approximately 10% for women with one previous ectopic pregnancy and at least 25% for women having two or more

B:-estrogen-progestin contraceptives and vasectomy are associated with the lowest absolute incidence of ectopic pregnancy (0.005 ectopic pregnancies/1,000 women years)

C:-if pregnancy does occur with an IUD in situ, the risk for ectopic pregnancy is as high as 80%

D:-approximately one-third of all pregnancies resulting from sterilization failure are ectopic

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question28:-Medical Management of Ectopic pregancy-Find INCORRECT statement

A:-In 85% cases, serum β-hCG concentrations rise somewhat between days 1 and 4 and does not necessarily indicate failed treatment

B:-Medical treatment is not contraindicated for ectopic pregnancies with serum β-hCG concentrations greater than 5,000 IU/L or presence of embryonic heart activity, but the

likelihood of treatment failure and the risk of tubal rupture are increased substantially

C:-Anti D immunoglobulin need be administered only tononsensitized Rh-negative women with ectopic pregnancy undergoing surgical management

D:-Free peritoneal fluid may be observed in almost 40% of women with early unruptured ectopic pregnancies and that the presence or absence of cul-de-sac fluid does not

accurately predict the success or failure of medical treatment

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question29:-Fetoplacental blood volume at term is approximately

A:-125 ml/kg of fetal weight

B:-80 ml/kg of fetal weight

C:-45 ml/kg of fetal weight

D:-240 ml/kg of fetal weight

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question30:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding international guidelines on vaccination in pregnancy

A:-A dose of tetanus-diphtheria-acellular pertussis (Tdap) is ideally given to gravidas between 27 and 36 weeks’ gestation

B:-All women who will be pregnant during influenza season should be offered vaccination, regardless of gestational age

C:-Avoid becoming pregnant for atleast one month after MMR vaccination

D:-HPV vaccination may be administered to high risk pregnant women after the first trimester of pregnancy

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question31:-The FALSE statement regarding fetal biometry by USS is

A:-Until 14 weeks’ gestation, the Crown-Rump Length (CRL) is accurate to within 5 to 7 days

B:-The biparietal diameter (BPD) most accurately reflects gestational age, with a variation of 7 to 10 days in the second trimester

C:-If the head shape is flattened-dolichocephaly or rounded brachycephaly, the Head Circumference (HC) is more reliable than the BPD

D:-To measure the AC, a circle is placed outside the fetal skin in a transverse image that contains the stomach, the kidneys and the confluence of the umbilical vein with the portal

sinus

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question32:-All the following are indications for fetal ECHO EXCEPT

A:-thick nuchal translucency

B:-monochorionic twin gestation

C:-maternal anti cardiolipin antibodies

D:-maternal pregestational diabetes orphenylketonuria

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question33:-Fetal renal pelviectasis – Find the CORRECT statement

A:-is present in 20 to 30 percent of fetuses

B:-in 30 percent of cases, it is transient or physiological

C:-the pelvis is typically considered dilated if it exceeds 4 mm in the second trimester or 7 mm at approximately 32 weeks’ gestation

D:-mild pyelectasis in the second trimester is not considered a soft marker for down syndrome

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question34:-All the statements about Hydramnios (Polyhydramnios) are TRUE EXCEPT

A:-it is diagnosed when AFI exceeds 24 and complicates 1 to 2 percent of singleton pregnancies

B:-underlying causes of hydramnios include fetal anomalies-in approximately 15 percent and diabetes in 15 to 20 percent

C:-the degree of hydramnios correlates with the likelihood of an anomalous infant

D:-idiopathic hydramnios accounts for upto 30 percent of cases of hydramnios

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-Find the FALSE statement regarding teratogens in pregnancy

A:-less than 1 percent of all birth defects are caused by medications

B:-80 percent of birth defects do not have an obvious etiology and of those withan identified cause, nearly 95 percent of cases have chromosomal or genetic origins

C:-mono therapy with Levitracetam is associated with a 8-percent major malformation rate, which is slightly higher than that for the general population

D:-sulfonamides and nitrofurantoin are appropriate for use in pregnancy only if suitable alternatives are lacking

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question36:-All are TRUE regarding cell free fetal DNA EXCEPT

A:-Reliably detected in maternal blood after 9 to 10 weeks’ gestation

B:-The proportion of cell-free DNA that is placental is called the fetal fraction and it composes approximately 50 percent of the total circulating cell-free DNA in maternal plasma

C:-The specificity to detect down syndrome, trisomy 18 and trisomy 13 is over 99 percent

D:-Real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) may be used for Rh genotyping, detection of paternally inherited single-gene disorders or fetal sex determination

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question37:-All are TRUE regarding Prenatal Diagnosis EXCEPT

A:-Biopsy of chorionic villi is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks’ gestation

B:-Transabdominal amniocentesis is generally done between 11 and 14 weeks

C:-FISH studies are usually completed within 24 to 48 hours

D:-Chromosomal MicroArray can often be performed directly on uncultured amniocytes with a turn around time of only 3 to 5 days

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-All are TRUE regarding Anti D immunoglobulin EXCEPT

A:-300 mcg dose is given for each 15 mL of fetal red cells or 30 mL of fetal whole blood to be neutralized

B:-Anti-D immune globulin may produce a weakly positive-1 : 1 to 1 : 4-indirect coombs titer in the mother

C:-Routine postpartum administration of anti-D immune globulin to at-risk pregnancies within 72 hours of delivery lowers the alloimmunization rate by 50 percent

D:-Antepartum anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks’ gestation reduces the third-trimester alloimmunization rate from approximately 2 percent to 0.1 percent

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-All are TRUE regarding Non-Stress Test NST EXCEPT

A:-Before 32 weeks, normal accelerations are defined as having an acme that is 10 bpm or more above baseline for 10 seconds or longer

B:-Beat-to-beat variability is under the control of the autonomic nervous system

C:-Loss of reactivity is most commonly associated with fetal hypoxia

D:-Abnormal non-stress test is inadequate to preclude any acuteasphyxial event happening in a 7 day interval

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-All are TRUE regarding miscarriage EXCEPT

A:-balanced structural chromosomal rearrangements may originate from either parent and are found in 2 to 4 percent of couples with recurrent pregnancy loss

B:-the incidence of euploid abortion rises dramatically after maternal age exceeds 35 years

C:-a threshold CRL of 5 mm with absent cardiac activity is used to diagnose non-viability or embryonic demise

D:-absence of an embryo in a sac with a mean sac diameter (MSD) 25 mm signifies an embryonic pregnancy

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question41:-In three tier system of CTG interpretation, category III abnormal CTG is all EXCEPT

A:-Absent baseline FHR variability and recurrent late deceleration

B:-Absent baseline FHR variability and recurrent variable deceleration

C:-Absent baseline FHR variability and bradycardia

D:-Prolonged deceleration > 2 min but < 10 min

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question42:-Absolute contraindications to neuraxial analgesia in labour include all EXCEPT

A:-Maternal coagulopathy

B:-Thrombocytopenia

C:-Prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin within 12 hours

D:-Refractory maternal hypertension

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question43:-Proven contraindications for the use of PGE2 for induction of labour include all EXCEPT

A:-suspicion of fetal compromise

B:-bronchial asthma

C:-unexplained vaginal bleeding

D:-cephalopelvic disproportion

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question44:-McRobert’s maneuver for relieving shoulder dystocia acts by all the following EXCEPT

A:-straightening of the sacrum relative to the lumbar vertebrae

B:-rotation of the symphysis pubis toward the maternal head

C:-decrease in the angle of pelvic inclination

D:-increase in overall pelvic dimensions

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT

A:-Case-control studies are most feasible for examining the association between a relatively common exposure and a relatively rare disease

B:-Strengths of cohort studies include the ability to obtain attributable and relative risks (RRs) because the occurrence of the outcome is being compared in two groups

C:-Phase 3 clinical trials determine the efficacy of treatment for the intended population, compared with other available treatments, assess adverse events and side effects

D:-The negative predictive value (NPV) and positive predictive value (PPV) of a test does not vary with the baseline characteristics of population or prevalence of a disease

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question46:-The following structures may be injured during sacrospinous ligament fixation EXCEPT

A:-Pudendal nerve

B:-Superior gluteal artery

C:-Inferior gluteal artery

D:-Internal pudendal vessels

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question47:-All the following statements about ureteric injury are TRUE EXCEPT

A:-75% of all iatrogenic injuries to the ureter result from gynecologic procedures

B:-Laparoscopic hysterectomies have the least rate of ureteral injuries and vaginal hysterectomies the highest

C:-Ninety-one percent of injuries occur at the level of the pelvicureter and only 2% and 7% occur at the upper and middle ureteral thirds

D:-Careful identification of the ureter before securing the infundibulopelvic ligament and uterine artery is the best protection against ureteric injury during hysterectomy

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question48:-All are TRUE regarding Dermoid cysts of ovary EXCEPT

A:-Malignant transformation occurs in less than 2% of dermoid cysts in women of all ages

B:-Upto 25% of dermoids occur in postmenopausal women

C:-The risk of torsion with dermoid cysts is approximately 50%

D:-They are bilateral in approximately 10% of cases

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question49:-All are TRUE regarding Endometrial Intraepithelial Neoplasia (EIN) EXCEPT

A:-Approximately 40% to 50% of women with atypical hyperplasia or EIN have concurrent carcinoma

B:-The risk of progression of hyperplasia without atypia to cancer is low but is approximately 30% among those with atypical hyperplasia

C:-Infertile women with EIN treated with high dose progestins should have an endometrial biopsy every 3 months

D:-For women with EIN treated with progestins, recurrence risks approach 10%

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question50:-According to the FIGO fibroid classification system type 3 is

A:-50% or more of the fibroid diameter within the myometrium

B:-Intramural and entirely within the myometrium, without extension to either the endometrial surface or to the serosa

C:-Abuts the endometrium without any intracavitary component

D:-Located in cervix or broad ligament

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021 – Question No 51 to 75 -Part 3

 

Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021 – Question No 76 to 100- Part 4

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