Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers Part 2- 2021- Solved Question Paper
The Obstetrics and Gynecology Multiple Choice Question Answers- 100 Nos published at www.rightjobalert.com on 06/06/2021
Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021 – Question No 51 to 100
Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021 – Question No 51 to 75 -Part 3
Question51:-All are TRUE about atypical leiomyomas EXCEPT
A:-Mitotically active leiomyoma is defined by the presence of 5 to 10 mitoses/10 high-power fields and may be found in pregnancy and OCP users
B:-Cellular leiomyomas exhibiting chromosome 1p deletions, may be clinically more aggressive
C:-STUMP shows atypical histologic features that range between leiomyoma and LMS but the mitotic count is less than 10/10 hpf
D:-STUMP mostly those that are p53 and p16 positive, have been found to exhibit malignant potential to develop a low-grade LMS
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question52:-Contraindications to Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE) include all EXCEPT
A:-desirous of future fertility
B:-impaired renal dysfunction
C:-diminished immune status
D:-willingness for hysterectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-The pharmacologic treatments for vulvodynia can include topical lidocaine 5% with any of the following EXCEPT
A:-oral gabapentine and steroids
B:-botulinum toxin injections
C:-combined oestrogen and progesterone pills
D:-menopausal hormone therapy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question54:-Find the INCORRECT statement about Chronic Pelvic Pain (CPP)
A:-There appears to be no relationship between the incidence and severity of pain or the stage of the endometriotic lesions
B:-The specific location and density of pelvic adhesions correlates consistently with the presence of pain symptoms
C:-Endometriosis can be demonstrated in 15% to 40% of patients undergoing laparoscopy for CPP
D:-The accuracy of ultrasound in detecting ovarian remnant syndrome can be improved by treating the patient with a 5- to 10-day course of clomiphene citrate
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-Find the FALSE statement regarding elagolix
A:-used to suppress the estrogen production to a level that is adequate for symptom relief but minimizes hypoestrogenic effects
B:-cannot produce a dose-dependent suppression of pituitary function and ovarian hormones like GnRH agonists
C:-improves dysmenorrhea and nonmenstrual pelvic pain during a 6-month period in women with endometriosis-associated pain
D:-orally active GnRH antagonist with no flare effect
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question56:-The FALSE statement regarding trichomonial vaginitis is
A:-Increased risk of PPROM and PTL in pregnant women and higher post hysterectomy cuff infection
B:-Less than 10% of men contract the disease after a single exposure to an infected woman
C:-T. vaginalis infection is associated with a two to three fold increased risk for HIV acquisition
D:-Clue cells and Whiff test may be positive in TV
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-Find the FALSE statement regarding cervicitis
A:-The microbial etiology of endocervicitis is unknown in about 50% of cases in which neither gonococci nor chlamydia is detected
B:-Mycoplasma genitaliem, can be detected in 10% to 30% of women with clinical cervicitis
C:-Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) for gonorrhea and chlamydia, is not mandatory in all cases
D:-Cervicitis is commonly associated with BV, which if not treated concurrently, leads to significant persistence
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-All the statements regarding PID are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-About 75% of women with tubo-ovarian abscess do not respond to antimicrobial therapy alone and need drainage
B:-No definite symptoms are defined to diagnose PID
C:-Evaluation of both vaginal and endocervical secretions is a crucial part of the workup of a patient with PID
D:-Additional criteria to increase the specificity of the diagnosis include endometrial biopsy, CRP and positive test for gonorrhea or chlamydia and laparoscopy
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-Regarding genital ulcers find the TRUE statement
A:-The ulcer of syphilis has irregular margins and is deep with undermined edges
B:-The chancroid ulcer has a smooth, indurated border and a smooth base
C:-The genital herpes ulcer is often multiple, sub-epidermal and inflamed
D:-If inguinal buboes with no ulcer is present, the most likely diagnosis is LGV
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question60:-Regarding testing in genital ulcers which of the following statements is FALSE
A:-(VDRL) test and a confirmatory treponemal test – fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA ABS) or microhemagglutinin-T. pallidum should be used to diagnose syphilis
presumptively in all cases
B:-HSV culture sensitivity approaches 100% in the vesicle stage but PCR assays for HSV DNA are more sensitive in the ulcerative stage
C:-Optimally, the evaluation of a patient with a genital ulcer should include culture for Haemophilusducreyi
D:-The diagnosis remains unconfirmed in more than half of patients (60%) with genital ulcers
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-Find the FALSE statement regarding HPV induced CIN.
A:-HPV-16 infection is a very specific finding and can be found in only 2% of women with normal cervical cytology
B:-HPV-18 is more specific than HPV-16 for invasive tumors
C:-Metaplasia found at the squamocolumnar junction, begins in the subcolumnar reserve cells
D:-As the CIN lesions become more severe, the HPV copy numbers decrease, and the capsid antigen disappears
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question62:-The sensitivity of cervical cytology testing by Pap Smear for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranges from
A:-60 to 95%
B:-47% to 62%
C:-20-30%
D:-10-15%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question63:-Cervical conisation is indicated in all EXCEPT
A:-ECC histologic findings are positive for CIN 2 or CIN 3
B:-Lack of correlation between cytology, biopsy and colposcopy
C:-Type I transformation zone
D:-Diagnosis of AGC-AIS
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question64:-The following drugs are approved for treatment of Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause (GSM) EXCEPT
A:-Ospemifene
B:-17 beta oestradiol
C:-Paroxetine
D:-DHEA
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Following are the duties of a Registered Medical Practitioner under POCSO Act of India EXCEPT
A:-The registered medical practitioner shall submit the report on the condition of the child within 48 hrs to the SJPU or local police
B:-Provide prophylaxis for identified STD including prophylaxis for HIV and emergency contraception
C:-Shall request for legal or magisterial requisition or other documentation prior to rendering such care
D:-Options 1) and 3)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question66:-All are TRUE statements regarding female sterilisation in India EXCEPT
A:-Laparoscopic tubal ligation can be done concurrently with second-trimester abortion and in the post-partum period only by an expert operator
B:-The consent of the spouse is not required for sterilization
C:-Clients should be married with female client below the age of 49 years and above the age of 22 years
D:-The couple need have minimum one child whose age is above one year unless the sterilization is medically indicated
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-BMI greater than 35 or weight greater than 100 kg, should receive 2 g of cefazolin as preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
B:-In as many as 50% of postoperative patients, Febrile morbidity in first 48 hours is noninfectious and does not need antibiotics
C:-Even a single dose of perioperative prophylactic antibiotic decreases the incidence of postoperative urinary tract infection from 40% to as low as 4%
D:-Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-All the following are TRUE about Enhanced Recovery-ERAS Protocol EXCEPT
A:-Preoperative carbohydrate loading
B:-The use of liberal antiemetics including preoperative steroids
C:-Avoiding routine nasogastric tube and drains
D:-Adequate pain relief with opiods
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-Find the CORRECT statement regarding laparoscopy.
A:-To avoid injury to the deep inferior epigastric vessels, the lateral trocar should be placed 3 to 4 cm medial to the medial umbilical ligament
B:-Transillumination of the abdominal wall from within permits the identification of the deep inferior epigastric vessels in most thin women
C:-The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated
D:-Hasson’s open entry method is better than the closed method in preventing organ injury
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question70:-Find the FALSE statement.
A:-Data are insufficient regarding fasting times for clear liquids and the risk of pulmonary aspiration during labor
B:-Modest amounts of clear liquids can be allowed in uncomplicated laboring women
C:-Obvious solid foods are best avoided
D:-A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III Caesarean sections
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question71:-Findings consistent with an Acute Peripartum or intrapartum event leading to Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy are the following EXCEPT
C:-Sentinel hypoxic or ischemic event occurring immediately before or during delivery
D:-Spastic diplegia and ataxia type cerebral palsy
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question72:-Absolute contraindications to External Cephalic Version in Breech include all EXCEPT
A:-Oligohydramnios
B:-Antepartum hemorrhage
C:-Any contraindication to labour
D:-Multiple gestation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question73:-Which of the following is used to deliver an arrested after coming head in assisted breech delivery of chin to pubis rotated baby ?
A:-Scanzoni maneuver
B:-Pajot’s maneuver
C:-Prague maneuver
D:-Kristellar maneuver
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-Which is NOT a contraindication to vacuum extraction ?
A:-Brow presentation
B:-Fetal bleeding disorder or demineralization disorder
C:-Previous fetal scalp sampling
D:-Less than 34 weeks of gestation
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-All the following are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Third-and fourth-degree lacerations at delivery are associated with an increased risk of fecal incontinence (OR 2-3)
B:-Patients with occult anal sphincter tears are 8 times more likely to have fecal incontinence
C:-There is sufficient evidence to support primary elective cesarean delivery for the purpose of preserving fecal continence
D:-Both forceps and vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery significantly increase this risk, with vacuum being less traumatic than forceps
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Obstetrics and Gynecology Question Answers- 2021 – Question No 76 to 100 -Part 4
Question76:-Using WHO classification for Semen Analysis interpretation, choose the FALSE statement is
A:-The normal lower limit for normal morphology is 4%
B:-The normal lower limit for sperm motility is 32%
C:-Viability should be at least 58%
D:-The normal lower limit for sperm concentration is 39 million/mL
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question77:-Contraindications to using Gonadotropins for ovulation induction in infertile women include all EXCEPT
A:-Uncontrolled thyroid and adrenal dysfunction
B:-Hypogonadotropichypogonadism due to space occupying lesions
C:-Sex hormone-dependent tumors of the reproductive tract and accecssory organs
D:-Kallmann syndrome
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-All the following are methods to decrease OHSS EXCEPT
A:-HCG trigger
B:-GnRH antagonists
C:-Invitro oocyte maturation
D:-Cabergoline
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question79:-All statements about heterotopic pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-1 in 30000 in spontaneous conceptions, as high as 1% with IVF treatment
B:-Only 26% of heterotopic cases can be diagnosed with transvaginal US
C:-Most often diagnosed in the first 5 to 8 weeks of gestation
D:-After treatment of a heterotopic gestation, the overall delivery rate for the intrauterine pregnancy is only 10-20%
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question80:-All the following are independent prognostic variables in endometrial cancer EXCEPT
A:-Myometrial invasion
B:-Peritoneal cytology
C:-Tumor size
D:-Lymph node metastasis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Find the INCORRECT statement regarding endometrial cancer.
A:-Inactivation of the PTEN tumor-suppressor gene is the most common genetic defect in type I cancers
B:-Type I cancers arise from its precursor Endometrial Intraepithelial Carcinoma (EIC)
C:-Type II cancers frequently demonstrate alterations in HER2/neu,p53,p16,E-cadherin and loss of LOH
D:-Type II endometrial cancer appears to be unrelated to high estrogen levels and often develops in nonobese women
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-All are TRUE regarding Leiomyosarcoma EXCEPT
A:-This malignancy has no relationship with parity
B:-A history of prior pelvic radiation can be elicited in about 50% of women with uterine LMS
C:-Surgery is the mainstay of treatment for uterine LMS
D:-Retroperitoneal lymphatic spread is rare in women with early-stage disease and lymphadenectomy is not associated with a survival advantage
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question83:-All the following are TRUE about TTTS EXCEPT
A:-Although growth discordance or growth restriction may be found with TTTS, these per se are not considered diagnostic criteria
B:-TTTS is diagnosed in a monochorionicdiamnionic pregnancy when there is oligamnios SVP<2 cm in one sac and polyhydramnios SVP>8 in the other sac
C:-Sonography surveillance of pregnancies at risk for TTTS should begin at 16 weeks and continue every 2 weeks
D:-The discrepancies in amnionic fluid volumes of TTTS are also typically seen in Twin Anaemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question84:-Find the FALSE statement regarding 2018 FIGO staging of cancer cervix.
A:-Tumour of size ≥ 2 cm and < 4 cm confined to the cervix is stage IB2
B:-Imaging and pathology can be used, where available, to supplement clinical findings with respect to tumor size and extent, in all stages
C:-The involvement of lymph nodes are not part of staging
D:-The lateral extent of the lesion is no longer considered
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question85:-The boundaries of paravesical space include all EXCEPT
A:-The obliterated umbilical artery running along the bladder medially
B:-The obturator internus muscle along the pelvic sidewall laterally
C:-The uterosacral ligament posteriorly
D:-The pubic symphysis anteriorly
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question86:-All are TRUE regarding serous borderline ovarian tumours EXCEPT
A:-10% of all ovarian serous tumors are of borderline type and 50% occur before the age of 40 years
B:-Up to 40% of serous borderline tumors are associated with spread beyond the ovary
C:-Up to 10% of women with ovarian serous borderline tumors and extraovarian implants may have invasive implants
D:-Borderline serous tumors may harbor foci of stromal microinvasion and if so, should be managed as aggressive serous carcinomas
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question87:-In Kyoto (Querlou and Morrow) classification, Nerve sparing Radical Hysterectomy is
A:-Type B
B:-Type C1
C:-Type C2
D:-Type D2
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question88:-All are TRUE about Germ cell tumours EXCEPT
A:-In patients with stage IA dysgerminoma, unilateral oophorectomy alone results in a 5-year disease-free survival rate of greater than 95%
B:-Patients with stage IA, grade 1 immature teratoma need 4 cycles of BEP adjuvant therapy after surgery
C:-All patients with Endodermal Stromal Tumours (EST) should be treated with chemotherapy shortly after recovering from surgery ovarian dysfunction of failure
D:-Transient ovarian failure is common with platinum-based chemotherapy for germ cell tumours and majority will have successful childbearing in the future
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question89:-All the following statements regarding Granulosa cell tumours of the ovary are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Endometrial cancer occurs in association with granulosa cell tumors in at least 5% of cases
B:-25-50% of Granulosa cell tumours are associated with endometrial hyperplasia
C:-Granulosa cell tumors may also produce androgens and cause virilization
D:-Juvenile granulosa cell tumors of the ovary are rare and behaves more aggressively than the adult type
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question90:-All the following statements about intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-bile acids are cleared incompletely and accumulate in plasma but the cause is unclear
B:-pruritus shows predilection for the soles and may precede laboratory findings by several weeks
C:-total plasma concentrations of bilirubin exceed 8 mg/dL and serum transaminases exceed 500 in 30% patients
D:-ursodeoxycholic acid relieves pruritus and improves fetal outcome better than steroids and cholestyramine
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question91:-All the statements about sickle cell anaemia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Sickle-cell trait does not appear to be associated with increased perinatal mortality, low birthweight or pregnancy-induced hypertension
B:-In Sickle cell disease there is no categorical contraindication to vaginal delivery, and caesarean delivery is reserved for obstetrical indications
C:-Routine prophylactic blood transfusions during labour is recommended to reduce painful crises in Sickle cell anaemia
D:-Antenatal folic acid supplementation with 4 mg daily throughout pregnancy is needed to support rapid red blood cell turnover
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question92:-All the statements about thrombocytopenia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-A platelet count of < 80,000/L should trigger an evaluation for etiologies other than gestational thrombocytopenia
B:-Hypertensive disorders account for 21% of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy
C:-In ITP complicating pregnancy, therapy with steroids is considered if the platelet count is below 30,000 to 50,000/L
D:-Maternal platelet counts have strong correlation with fetal platelet counts and caesarean delivery is recommended if platelet count is < 50,000 on fetal blood sampling
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question93:-All the following statements regarding diabetes in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Periconceptional HbA1C should be kept under 6.5% in pregestational diabetic women
B:-MSAFP levels may be lower in diabetic pregnancies and the incidence of congenital cardiac anomalies is five fold in mothers with diabetes
C:-Ultra short acting insulin analogues starts acting in 30 minutes, peaks in 2 hrs minutes and is good for preprandial glycemic control in pregnancy
D:-Insulin therapy is typically added if fasting levels persistently exceed 95 mg/dL after medical nutrition therapy
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-All the statements about thyroid in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Women with TPO antibodies are at increased risk for progression of thyroid disease and postpartum thyroiditis
B:-It is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for 1 month after radioablative therapy with iodine 131
C:-Pregnancy is associated with an increased thyroxine requirement in approximately a third of supplemented women
D:-Prophylthiouracil (PTU) is preferred in pregnancy because it partially inhibits the conversion of T4 to T3 and crosses the placenta less readily than methimazole
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question95:-All the statements about SLE in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
A:-Fetal cell micro chimerism leads to the predilection for autoimmune disorders like SLE among women
B:-In the presence of anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies, the incidence of fetal myocarditis and heart block is as high as 20%
C:-During pregnancy, lupus improves in a third of women, remains unchanged in a third and worsens in the remaining third
D:-Hydroxychloroquine is not associated with congenital malformations and can be continued in pregnancy
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question96:-All are TRUE about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome EXCEPT
A:-Asherson syndrome is a rapidly progressive thromboembolic disorder due to a cytokine storm seen in antiphospolipid antibody syndrome
B:-Approximately 60 percent of patients with APS have a positive lupus anticoagulant LAC assay alone
C:-Heparin binds to beta 2 glycoprotein I and prevents binding of anticardiolipin andanti-beta 2 glycoprotein I antibodies to the syncytiotrophoblasts
D:-Treatment using aspirin, anticoagulation and close monitoring has increased live birth rates to more than 70 percent in women with APS
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question97:-All are TRUE about management of obstetric haemorrhage EXCEPT
A:-The most important mechanism of action with internal iliac artery ligation is an 85-percent reduction in pulse pressure in those arteries distal to the ligation
B:-ROTEM or TEG cannot diagnose coagulopathies stemming from platelet dysfunction or anti platelet drugs
C:-Each single-donor apheresis six-unit bag raises the platelet count by approximately 5000/L
D:-Dilutional coagulopathy that is clinically indistinguishable from DIC is the most frequent coagulation defect found with blood loss and multiple transfusions
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-All are TRUE about USS features of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS) EXCEPT
A:-loss of the normal hypoechoicretroplacentalzone between the placenta and uterus
B:-placental vascular lacunae or lakes
C:-distance between the uterine serosa-bladder wall interface and the retroplacental vessels measures < 10 mm
D:-placental bulging into the posterior bladder wall
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question99:-USS has a sensitivity of ____________ in suspected abruptio placenta.
A:-24%
B:-54%
C:-81%
D:-93%
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question100:-All are TRUE about COVID-19 in pregnancy EXCEPT
A:-It is associated with an almost three times greater risk of preterm birth (17%)
B:-Majority of pregnant women (74%) may be asymptomatic
C:-ICU admissions are not more common in pregnant women compared to nonpregnant women of the same age
D:-Risk factors associated with hospital admissions include older age, obesity, diabetes and hypertension
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