100 Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper with answer key 2024
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 1
1. Which among the following is not a feature of Capitalism ?
A) Right of inheritance B) Right of free enterprise
C) Right of Government intervention d) Right of Private gain
2. Which among the following is associated with State ownership ?
A) Capitalism B) Socialism
C) Co-operation d) Communism
3. The idea of ‘Co-operative Commonwealth’ was rst given by
A) d. R. Gadgil B) d. G. Karve
C) Sir Frederic Nicholson d) dr. William King
SBI Clerk Exam Question Paper with Answers
4. ‘From each according to his capacity, to each according to his need’ is the maxim of
A) Capitalism B) Socialism
C) Communism d) Co-operation
5. ‘Corporate body’ represents
A) Joint Stock Company
B) Co-operative Societies
C) Both Joint Stock Company and Co-operative Societies
d) Registered Partnership Firms
6. Who recommended the revised co-operative principles by ICA in 1995 ?
A) dr. William King
B) dr. Ivan mac Pherson
C) Sir Frederic Nicholson
d) Prof. d. G. Karve
7. Which among the following is not true about co-operative principles ?
A) The members have the right to be actively involved in setting policies and in
making key decisions
B) The members can accept the responsibilities of membership without considering
Gender, Social, Racial ,Political or even Religious factors
C) Co-operatives provides education and training only for the members
d) The members have the right to get dividend based on capital contribution
8. Which among the following is not identied as co-operative values ?
A) Unselshness B) Fraternity
C) Integrity d) Concern for Community
9. ‘Cash trading’ is suggested as one of the Co-operative Principles by
A) Roachdale Pioneers
B) Karve Committee on Co-operative Principles
C) ICA in 1995
d) dr. lvan mac Pherson
10. Karve Commission on Co-operative Principles submitted its report in
A) 1937 B) 1966
C) 1976 d) 1995
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 2
11. The word ‘Find Raiffeisen’ is included in the report submitted by
A) Sir Frederic Nicholson B) dr. William King
C) Prof. d. G. Karve d) d. R. Gadgil
12. ‘Scale of Finance’ is prepared by
A) PACS B) dCB
C) KSCB d) NABARd
13. ‘Credit limit Statement’ is prepared by
A) PACS B) dCB
C) KSCB d) NABARd
14. ‘Price Fluctuation Fund’ is usually created by
A) Consumer Co-operatives
B) marketing Co-operatives
C) Industrial Co-operatives
d) Handloom Co-operatives
15. The headquarters of Kerala State Co-operative Housing Federation is at
A) Kochi B) Kozhikode
C) Thiruvananthapuram d) Thrissur
16. ‘double Compartmental System’ is related to
A) Preparation of Final Accounts of Consumer Co-operatives
B) Stock records of Industrial Co-operatives
C) Stock records of Consumer Co-operatives
D) Physical verication of Cash balance with the Day Book
17. The printing wing of ‘Sahithya Pravarthaka Co-operative Society’ (SPCS) is known as
A) NBS B) SP PRESS
C) INdIA PRESS d) PRESS INdIA
18. National Co-operative development Corporation (NCdC) was established in
A) 1953 B) 1958
C) 1961 d) 1963
19. “Operation Flood” is a scheme of
A) NCdC B) NddB
C) NABARd d) NAFEd
20. ‘Cess Fund’ is constituted for the development of
A) marketing Co-operatives
B) Housing Co-operatives
C) Handloom Co-operatives
d) Coir Co-operatives
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 3
21. KRlBHCO was founded in
A) 1975 B) 1980
C) 1982 d) 1988
22. Which among the following are engaged in fertiliser production in Co-operative
sector ?
A) IFFCO and FACT
B) KRIBHCO and FACT
C) IFFCO and KRIBHCO
d) IFFCO and National Fertilisers limited
23. Which of the following condition(s) is/are to be met in respect of purchase of shares
by society using Principal State Partnership Fund or Subsidiary State Partnership
Fund ?
No. Conditions
I. Prior Government Approval in writing
II. liability should be limited to the extent of amount paid of such shares
III. Government Approval is to be sought within time given
IV. liability of society whose shares are bought may be limited or unlimited but with
Government Approval
A) I and II only B) II and III only
C) II only d) IV only
24. The following statements are related to nature of state aid to cooperative societies.
you are required to identify the incorrect statement(s) related to the source of fund
available to cooperatives given below.
I. The Government may subscribe to share capital of society with limited liability only.
II. The Government is not entitled to dividend on shares of any such society.
III. The Government may provide nancial assistance to a society for the purchase of
shares in other societies with limited liability.
IV. Principal State Partnership Fund is provided by Apex Societies to Central
Societies.
A) I and II B) II and III
C) II and IV d) III and IV
25. Which one(s) of the following are not characteristics of unitary type of cooperatives ?
I. Unitary Societies facilitate upholding Cooperative values
II. large Society and branches all over the country is the operating pattern of Unitary
Societies
III. General Body constitutes its members only
IV. Board of directors is the supreme Governing Body
V. Unitary Societies are called Centralised Societies
A) III only B) II and III only
C) IV only d) I and IV only
26. you are given with a set of facts describing the characteristics of Federal and Unitary
types of Cooperative Societies. Identify the distinct characteristics in each combination
having 3 sets that doesn’t describe features of Federal type of Societies.
Combination of characteristics of unitary/Federal societies
a b c
I. Two/Three tier system large no. of societies Easy organisation
at primary level
II. Cooperative democracy Easy planning/control decentralization of
authority/responsibility
III. Societies for different purpose Power in few hands Operation based on
Cooperative ideology
IV. A large society with branches Policies relevant at grass Uphold Cooperative
root level members values
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 4
A) c-I b-II a-III b-IV
B) b-I c-II b-III a-IV
C) a-I c-II a-III b-IV
d) c-I b-II b-III a-IV
27. The interrelationship among Cooperation, competition and conict is best described
in the following denitions/descriptions of Cooperative exponents. Match Part I
description of Cooperation with Part II – authors of denitions/descriptions.
Part – I Part – II
a. Cooperation is the universal instrument of creation I. mill C.
b. Cooperation, not competition is the password for the future II. Charles Gide d.
c. Cooperation is the noblest ideal that transforms human III. E. R. Bowen A.
life from conict of classes with opposite interests to
friendly rivalry in pursuit of common good for all
d. Competition is essentially a warfare that means triumph IV. Hyde Bailey B.
of strong and ruin of weak
A) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV B) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
C) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III d) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
28. Who are all exempted from payment of Audit fees as per Kerala Cooperative Societies
Act, 1969 ?
i. Any society for rst two years of audit irrespective of date of commencement of
business
ii. All social welfare and farming societies who don’t accept deposits and grant loans/
advances
iii. All Cooperative Societies of which all or majority of members are belonging to
SC/ST except Apex Cooperative Society
iv. Any Weavers Society until it has completed sixth Cooperative year after its
commencement of business
v. Vanitha Cooperative Societies
A) ii and iv only
B) ii and v only
C) ii and iii only
d) iii and v only
29. Which of the following is record maintained by Cooperative auditor, a complete and
permanent record of work done during the audit of each society, in order to facilitate
correct compilation of audit ?
A) Audit programme B) Audit note
C) Working sheet d) Audit memorandum
30. The characteristic features related to formation, objectives, functioning of designer
vs. Greenhouse Cooperatives are enlisted below. Which combination of features
best describes Greenhouse Cooperatives ?
I. local efforts grow on their own
II. Self-patterned model
III. mobilisation of hidden resources
IV. Blue print approach
V. discourse
A) I, III and V only
B) II, III and IV only
C) I, III and IV only
d) I, III, IV and V only
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 4
31. The distinct advantages in the functioning of Single Purpose and multi-Purpose Cooperative
Societies are enlisted below in Column A and B. Identify odd one out in Column A and
Column B that don’t match with Title i.e. types of societies Single and multi-Purpose.
single Purpose – A Multi-Purpose – B
I. Increased efciency in satisfaction of I. Better Customer Loyalty
specic needs
II. Easy fund mobilisation II. All needs under one umbrella
III. Better customer tie with Society III. Better Efciency via Professional
management
IV. High Economic Viability IV. land development Banks
option – A option – B
A) II-IV I
B) II I
C) IV I-IV
d) I III
32. The following statements are related to evaluating a cooperative organisation in three
dimensions being member dimension, Enterprise dimension and Ethical dimension.
Classify the statements into three dimensions appropriately.
I. management of Cooperatives mean management of institution and management of
socio-economic values.
II. Own code has to be developed by societies as to how to treat the members.
III. member Education and enlightened members are necessary for better working of
societies.
IV. Economic value is equally important as it is individual growth that permits formation
of organisation.
V. members should behave according to principles and practice of cooperatives.
Member dimension enterprise dimension ethical dimension
A) II III, IV I, V
B) V, III I II, IV
C) III I, IV II, V
d) IV I, III II, IV
33. Section 65 of the Kerala Cooperative Societies Act is related to payment of audit fees for
different types of societies. Identify the basis of charging audit fees in case of societies
listed below.
Type of society Basis of Charging Audit fee
a. Societies having Credit/Non-Credit I. On sales proceeds
activities
b. Societies dealing in Goods (except II. Working capital
Coir/Consumer) Cooperatives
c. Primary Consumer Cooperatives III. On sale proceeds of goods
d. Credit Societies (except PCARdB/ IV. On Higher of sales proceeds of goods
Housing Societies/House or working capital
mortgage banks)
a b c d
A) III IV I II
B) II III IV I
C) II I IV III
d) II IV III I
34. The hierarchical structure of administrative set up of cooperative department is
presented below.
Identify the level of authority with designations of ofcers in Audit Wing.
designations of Authority Level of Authority
a. Assistant director I. State
b. Additional director II. Taluk
c. Joint director III. Unit
d. Senior Auditor IV. district
a b c d
A) I II IV III
B) II I III IV
C) I II III IV
d) II I IV III
35. With respect to preparation of Audit Memorandum, Audit Report and Audit Certicate,
which one of the following facts are correct ?
I. The auditor has to furnish a certicate in the form of a report attached to Audit note.
II. Audit memorandum is prepared by auditor on nalizing audit for a year.
III. Audit memorandum is in the form of questions to be answered by auditors with
reference to books of accounts, working sheets nal statements prepared in
relation to audit.
IV. Audit memorandum is submitted with draft audit certicate, summary of defects
and Audit Report.
option I option II option III option IV
A) Not correct Correct Correct Correct
B) Correct Correct Correct Correct
C) Correct Not correct Correct Correct
d) Correct Correct Not correct Correct
36. Which one of the following is/are to be published or exhibited by Society in the Notice
Board of society ?
I. Audit certicate.
II. Statement of R and d for the year.
III. Summary of defects.
IV. Prot and Loss Account.
V. Balance Sheet.
A) I, II and III only B) II, III and IV only
C) I, II, IV and V only d) All of the above
37. The following statements are related to duties, powers of Registrar related to
settlement of disputes. Identify the statement(s) inappropriate as per provisions of
Kerala Cooperative Societies Act.
I. Registrar appointed as Arbitrator has no right to use word court in his proceedings
and have jurisdiction to decide monitory disputes only.
II. The Registrar or any person conferred with the powers of registrar is only a QuasiJudicial authority and not a court.
III. monitory disputes relating to service matters are not to be adjudicated by Registrar.
IV. The dispute in connection with employment of ofcers and their promotion and
interse seniority are to be adjudicated by Registrar.
V. The Registrar has the power to adjudicate upon the service disputes in a society.
A) I and II only B) III and IV only
C) III and V only d) IV and V only
38. Which of the following combination of nature of dispute and authority to whom it shall
be referred is correct ?
option Nature of dispute and Authority
I. Non-monetary dispute between Society and Creditor of SocietyCooperative Arbitration Court
II. Non-monetary dispute between Society and Creditor of Society-Registrar
III. monetary dispute between Society and Creditor of Society-Cooperative
Arbitration Court
IV. monetary dispute between Society and Creditor of Society-Registrar
Combinations
A) I and III
B) I and IV
C) II and IV
d) II and III
39. Whenever there is inconsistency or repugnancy exists between the provisions of the
Kerala Cooperative Societies Act and the Industrial disputes Act, which one of the
following hold true ?
A) KCS Act will Prevail over Id Act
B) Id Act Prevail Over KCS Act
C) Either Id Act or KCS Act as per decision of Court
d) Either KCS Act or Id Act as per decision of Government
40. With respect to nature, powers and functions of Cooperative Arbitration Tribunal, which
of the following statements is/are inappropriate ?
I. CAT is a forum subordinate to the Registrar of Cooperative Societies.
II. CAT exercises same powers as that of Civil Court.
III. CAT has power to consider the request of the delinquent for payment of allowance,
pending enquiry.
IV. The CAT shall have jurisdiction to hear appeals against decision of the registrar or an
arbitrator.
A) I and II only B) II and IV only
C) IV only d) I only
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 5
41. match the following facts on appeals to tribunal, award, review and revision of petition in
relation to settlement of disputes in Cooperative Societies.
Facts Time Limit
I. Time limit for ling Appeal to Tribunal a. 30 days
II. Reasonable time limit for Revision b. 90 days
Petition
III. Periods of limitation c. 60 days
IV. Application for Review d. 90 days
I II III IV
A) c d a b
B) d c a b
C) a d b c
d) b c a d
42. The nature and type of state aid to cooperatives are depicted in the following table.
match the section as per Cooperative Societies Act and type or feature of state aid to
cooperatives appropriately.
Type/Nature of state Aid to Cooperatives section
I. direct Subscription to share capital by Govt. a. Section 44
II. Principal State Partnership Fund b. Section 50
III. disposal of PSPF/SSPF c. Section 42
IV. disposal of share capital/dividend d. Section 51
I II III IV
A) a c b d
B) a c d b
C) c a d b
d) c a b d
43. Which one of the following combinations does constitute a form of state aid to societies ?
i. Guarantee repayment of principal and payment of interest on debentures issued by
a Society.
ii. Guarantee the repayment of share capital of society and dividends there on at such
rates as specied by Government.
iii. Guarantee the repayment of principal and payment of interest on loans and
advances to a Society.
iv. Guarantee the repayment of deposits received by the society and payment of
interest on such deposits.
A) i, ii and iii only B) i, iii and iv only
C) ii, iii and iv only d) None of the above
44. If a Society in which shares are purchased from the money’s in the Subsidiary State
Partnership Fund is dissolved or wound up , the authority(ies) having claim against
central society, which purchased shares, in respect of any loss arising from such
purchases is/are
A) Government B) Apex Society
C) Both A) and B) d) Neither Government nor Apex Society
45. Consider the following statements on voting rights as per Cooperative Societies Act,
1912.
1. In limited liability societies, voting right is decided by the bylaw of the society.
2. In societies with unlimited liability, voting right is limited to one vote per member.
3. The proxy appointed by a registered society, for voting in the affairs of another
society, should be its member.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
A) 2 and 3 only B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only d) All of them
46. Which one of the following is not a highlight of National development Council Resolution
on Cooperation of 1958 ?
A) A village community as the primary unit of Cooperative Society
B) Primary societies are to be federated through unions and they have to become
member of marketing societies
C) multi agency approach in developing cooperatives
d) National savings movement to utilise cooperatives as primary agency in rural areas
47. Identify the wrong statement from the following on Committee on Cooperative law
1957.
A) The committee was constituted by the department of Agriculture and Cooperation,
Reserve Bank of India
B) It was chaired by S. T. Raja
C) It prepared model Bill, Rules and Byelaws for Cooperative Societies
d) It recommended all states to set up a Cooperative Tribunal
48. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on model Cooperatives
Act appointed by the Planning Commission in 1991 ?
A) Jagdish Kapoor B) Choudhary Brahm Perkash
C) Vikhe Patil d) V. S. Vyas
49. As per the provisions of the multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, ‘Area of Operation
of a Society’ means which of the following ?
A) The whole of India
B) The area as mentioned in the memorandum of registration
C) The area where the society does its business or undertake economic activity
d) The area from which the persons are admitted as members
50. Arrange the following institution in the chronological order of its formation. Select your
answer from the choices given below.
1. The Cochin Central Co-operative Bank.
2. Trivandrum Central Co-operative Bank.
3. The malabar Co-operative Central Bank.
A) 2, 3, 1 B) 3, 1, 2 C) 2, 1, 3 d) 3, 2, 1
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 6 SBI Clerk Exam Question Paper with Answers
51. In banking, ‘Safety’ is treated as a cardinal principle of lending. Which of the following
statement/s best explain it ?
1. It is borrower’s capacity to pay.
2. It is borrower’s willingness to pay.
3. It is borrower’s capacity to income generation.
4. It is borrower’s not using loan for consumption purpose.
A) 2, 3 and 4 only B) 1, 3 and 4 only C) 1, 2 and 3 only d) All of them
52. Which of the following is not considered as a Bill of Exchange drawn on a banker ?
A) A cheque
B) An electronic image of a cheque in truncation
C) A cheque in the electronic form
d) Bill rediscounted by another banker
53. Which of the following factors can directory affect the Credit Creation ability of the
banks ?
1. Cash Reserve Ratio.
2. REPO Rate.
3. Statutory liquidity Ratio.
4. Ination.
A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 and 4 only C) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 4 only
54. The word ‘Bank’ is deemed to have originated from which of the following ?
A) Banko B) Banco C) Bancho d) Bankho
55. The following statements are on onetary Policy Committee. Identify the wrong
statement.
A) The ination target for the present period is between 1% PA (lower) and
7% PA (upper)
B) The ination target is xed by the Central Government
C) The MPC have six members and came into existence in 2016
D) The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year
56. Which one of the following is considered as the ‘Policy Rate’ in the monitory policy
statement of India ?
A) 180 days Government Bond Rate B) 92 days Treasury Bill Rate
C) LIBOR Rate D) Repo Rate
57. Following statements are related to the history of RBI. Identify the wrong statement.
A) RBI was set up on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission and
started its operation on April 1, 1935
B) The accounting year of RBI during its inception was from July to June
C) RBI was a shareholder’s bank till it is nationalised in 1949
D) RBI was the Central Bank for Burma till April 1947
58. The following are the statements on RBI’s role on foreign exchange management. Identify
the wrong statement.
A) Rules on Current Account transactions are notied by the RBI
B) Specifying conditions for payment on Capital Account transactions
C) Provide licence as ‘Authorised Person’ to deal in foreign exchange
D) Giving guarantee or surety where foreign exchange transaction is involved
59. Consider the following statements regarding the history of State Bank of India. You are
requested to identify the wrong statement.
A) The Bank of Calcutta was set up by the English East India Company in 1806
B) The Bank of Bengal, Bombay and Madras were governed by royal charters and
had private share holdings
C) Bank of Bengal was formed in 1809 to take over Bank of Calcutta
D) The Bank of Bengal, Bombay and Madras were having the right to issue notes
60. Following statements are on the National Credit Council. you are requested to identify
the wrong statement.
A) The National Credit Council was established in 1967
B) It was the result of adoption of ‘social control’ over banks as a policy measure
C) It recognised the importance of the commercial banks’ role as complementary to
co-operatives in agriculture and rural credit
d) It led to the formation of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural development
(NABARd)
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 7
61. Below given statements are on the lead bank scheme. you are requested to identify the
wrong statement.
A) It was introduced by Government of India in december 1969
B) It is introduced based on the findings of the study group headed by Prof. D. R.
Gadgil in 1969
C) The scheme has Block level Bankers’ Committee and district Consultative
Committee
d) The district Collector is the Chairman of the district Consultative Committee
62. Of the following, which is the rst Regional Rural Bank in India ?
A) Saurashtra Gramin Bank, Gujarat
B) madhyanchal Gramin Bank madhya Pradesh
C) Bangiya Gramin Vikas Bank, West Bengal
d) Prathama Bank, Uttar Pradesh
63. Which one of the following is not a recommendation of the Committee on the Financial
System (Narasimhan Committee 1) ?
A) Reaching of 8% capital adequacy ratio in banks
B) Setting up of asset reconstruction fund
C) The banks to reduce their NPAs to 3% by 2002
d) deregulation of interest rates
64. The following are features of a payment banks. Identify the wrong one.
A) It can accept only savings and current deposits
B) It is not covered by the Banking Ombudsman Scheme
C) It need not issue passbooks for the deposit accounts
d) It cannot lend to any person
65. Following statements are on Small Finance Banks. Identify the wrong statement.
A) SFBs are required to open at least 50% of its branches in unbanked rural centres
B) Objective is to mobilise savings from unserved and underserved sections of the
population
C) Small nance banks are required to extend 75% of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit to
priority sector
d) It has to use high technology and low cost operating model of banking
66. As per Banking Regulation Act, 1949, a banking company can pay dividend only on
satisfying the following condition except
A) All its capitalised expenses have been completely written off
B) Provisioning 25% of net prot to a risk reserve fund
C) Adequate provision for bad debts has been made to the satisfaction of the auditor
of the Bank
d) Writing off the depreciation in the value of investments in approved securities which
are actually been capitalised or accounted as a loss
67. Consider the following statements on depositor Education and Awareness Fund (dEAF).
Identify the wrong statement.
A) RBI may appoint an authority or committee to administer dEAF and to maintain
accounts
B) The banks has to transfer all amounts to the credit of an account which is not
operated for a period of ten years or more to dEAF
C) A prior approval from the RBI is required for giving back the amount transferred to
dEAF to the customer
D) The fund is utilised for the promotion of depositors’ interests as specied by RBI
68. The statements given below are related to inspection under Section 35 of the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949. Identify the statement which is wrong.
A) An inspection can be done by RBI by its own or on the direction of the Central
Government
B) RBI can cause a scrutiny of the affairs of any banking company and its books and
accounts
C) RBI shall supply a copy of its report on inspection to the bank, while the report
on scrutiny will be given only on request of the bank, if no adverse action is
contemplated against the bank
d) Both inspection and scrutiny is to be done by the person who possess the
qualications to audit the accounts and books of the banking company
69. Below given statements are on voluntary winding up of a banking company. Identify the
wrong statement.
A) For voluntarily winding up, a certicate in writing from RBI stating that, the
company is able to pay in full all its debts to its creditors as they accrue
B) A voluntarily winding up shall be completed within 360 days which can be extended
by the court by another 360 days
C) The High Court may allow voluntary winding up. And if required it shall be done
under the supervision of the court
d) The High Court may order the winding up by the court, of a banking company
which is being wound up voluntarily, if such voluntary winding up is detriment to the
interests of the depositors
70. The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 cover all previous Ombudsman Schemes
except
A) The Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006
B) The Ombudsman Scheme for Non-banking Financial Companies, 2018
C) The Ombudsman Scheme for Foreign Banks, 2007
d) The Ombudsman Scheme for digital Transactions, 2019
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 8
71. On the secured portion of the doubtful assets for the period of 1 to 3 years to be charged
a provision of
A) 100% B) 60%
C) 50% D) 40%
72. Essential characteristics of a negotiable instrument is/are
A) Title
B) Right to sue
C) Both A) and B)
d) None of the above
73. In 1999 The Government of India started __________ to promote self-employment
in rural areas by developing and skilling SHGs.
A) Prime minister’s Employment Generation Programme
B) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar yojana
C) Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar yojana
d) Pradhan mantri Rojgar Protsahan yojana
74. CAmElS Rating of Banks means
A) Capital adequacy, Asset quality, management capability, Economic, liquidity and
Sensitivity to market risk
B) Capital adequacy, Asset quality, management capability, Earnings, liquidity and
Sensitivity to market risk
C) Capital adequacy, Asset quality, management capability, Economic, liquidity and
Security to market risk
D) Capital efciency, Asset quality, Management capability, Earnings, Leverage and
Sensitivity to market risk
75. Find out the special types of customers of a bank.
A) Joint account holders B) minors
C) Non-trading companies d) All of the above
76. match the following :
A B
1. Core Banking system a. Steal login information
2. money laundering b. Various delivery channels
3. Trojan Horses c. Bill Payment
4. Online Banking d. Converting black money
Find the correct pairs.
A) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
77. The RBI introduced the Banking Ombudsman Scheme in
A) 1995 B) 2000
C) 2002 d) 2006
78. Consider the following statements and nd the correct one.
A) Crop loans are usually short-term B) Crop loans are not secured
C) Both A) and B) are correct d) Both A) and B) are incorrect
79. Consider the following statements and nd out the correct one.
A) Bill of Exchange is an unconditional order
B) In the case of a promissory note there is no notice is required to the maker
C) Both A) and B) are correct
d) None of the above
80. SWIFT stands for
A) Society for Worldwide Intrabank Financial Telecommunications
B) System for Worldwide Intrabank Financial Telecommunications
C) System for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications
d) Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 9
81. Expand ‘SARFAESI’.
A) Securitisation and Restructuring of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest
B) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest
C) Securitisation and Redevelopment of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest
d) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enrichment of Security
Interest
82. KyC stands for
A) Know your Customer B) Knowledge your Customers
C) Know your Clients d) None of these
83. Consider the following statements.
A) The processing speed of NEFT is faster than ImPS
B) There’s no maximum transfer limit in RTGS
C) Immediate mobile Payment Service is the full form of ImPS
d) All are correct
84. mICR stands for
A) magnetic Ink Coding Recognition
B) magnetic Ink Coding Retrieval
C) magnetic Ink Character Recognition
d) magnetic Ink Character Retrieval
85. NABARd was setup on
A) 12/7/1982 B) 02/10/1982 C) 7/12/1983 d) 12/7/1983
86. ________ is issued by Indian public sector banks to the farmers of India.
A) Kisan Samman Nidhi B) Kisan Credit Card
C) Kisan Card d) Kisan mithra Card
87. IFSC stands for
A) Indian Financial Service Code
B) International Financial Service Code
C) Indian Financial System Code
d) International Financial System Code
88. In the case of the general crossing of a cheque
A) Two lines are not compulsory
B) The name of the bank must be specied across the face of the cheque
C) Required two lines across the cheque
d) The words “And Company” are not allowed written
89. __________ is a social security scheme implemented by the Government of India,
which provides risk coverage of Rs. 2 Iakh for accidental death and full disability and
Rs. 1 lakh for partial disability.
A) Pradhan mantri Suraksha Bhima yojana
B) Pradhan mantri Jeevan Jyothi yojana
C) Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan mantri Jan Arogya yojana
d) Atal Pension yojana
Bank Clerk Exam Question Paper Part 10
90. The relationship between a banker and a customer is
A) Trustee and beneciary B) Debtor and creditor
C) Principal and agent d) All of the above
91. Which of the following output devices provides tactile feedback to the user, often
used in gaming controllers and mobile devices ?
A) Plasma display B) OlEd display
C) dot matrix Printer d) Haptic device
92. Phishing is a type of cyber crime that involves
A) Unauthorized physical access to a computer system
B) denying access to a webservice
C) Sending fraudulent emails to obtain sensitive information
d) Serves as a backdoor to allow access to intruders
93. System software that translates high-level language into machine code is called
A) Word processor B) Assembly language
C) Spreadsheet d) Compiler
94. Which component of the operating system handles the execution of processes and
tasks ?
A) File system B) Kernel
C) Shell d) device driver
95. In programming, what is the purpose of a loop ?
A) To execute a block of code multiple times
B) To terminate the program
C) To dene a function or sub program
d) To handle exceptions
96. In spreadsheet software, what is the intersection of a row and a column called ?
A) Pivot table B) Worksheet
C) Cell d) macro
97. Which application software is primarily used for email communication ?
A) microsoft Word B) microsoft Outlook
C) microsoft Excel d) microsoft PowerPoint
98. Which type of network is used to connect multiple networks over large geographical
areas, such as countries or continents ?
A) WAN B) lAN
C) mAN d) PAN
99. Which networking device is responsible for directing data packets between networks,
typically found at the gateway between a local network and the internet ?
A) Switch B) Hub
C) Router d) Repeater
100. Choose the correct HTml element for the largest heading.
A) <head> B) <h1>
C) <h6> d) <h8>