AIIMS Nursing Officer Recruitment NORCET Question Answers with Explanation 2026

AIIMS NORCET 2026 – Nursing Officer Question & Answer Guide

The AIIMS Nursing Officer Recruitment Common Eligibility Test (NORCET) 2026 is a crucial step for aspiring nursing officers across India. To help candidates prepare, we have compiled Part 2 of the NORCET 2026 question set (renumbered 1–25) along with answers and clear explanations. This guide covers key topics in nursing, anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, and patient care.

Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
(1) Hepatitis B
(2) BCG
(3) Polio (IPV)
(4) Tetanus toxoid
Answer: 2

Nursing Exam Mocktest

Explanation: BCG (Bacillus Calmette–Guérin) is a live attenuated vaccine used against tuberculosis. Normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest is:
(1) 8–12/min
(2) 12–20/min
(3) 20–28/min
(4) 28–36/min
Answer: 2
Explanation: Adult normal respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute. The most abundant white blood cell in circulation is:
(1) Lymphocyte
(2) Neutrophil
(3) Eosinophil
(4) Basophil
Answer: 2
Explanation: Neutrophils make up 50–70% of circulating WBCs and are the primary defense against bacterial infections. The primary site for absorption of nutrients is:
(1) Stomach
(2) Small intestine
(3) Large intestine
(4) Esophagus
Answer: 2
Explanation: Small intestine, especially the jejunum and ileum, is the main site of nutrient absorption. Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression?
(1) Trigeminal
(2) Facial
(3) Vagus
(4) Hypoglossal
Answer: 2
Explanation: Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) controls muscles of facial expression. All of the following are water-soluble vitamins except:
(1) Vitamin B12
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Folic acid
Answer: 3
Explanation: Vitamin D is fat-soluble; B12, C, and folic acid are water-soluble. Which electrolyte imbalance causes tetany and positive Chvostek sign?
(1) Hyperkalemia
(2) Hypocalcemia
(3) Hypernatremia
(4) Hypomagnesemia
Answer: 2
Explanation: Low calcium levels (hypocalcemia) cause neuromuscular excitability leading to tetany. The hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary is:
(1) TSH
(2) ACTH
(3) Oxytocin
(4) GH
Answer: 3
Explanation: Posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin and ADH. The nursing process step involving analysis of collected data is:
(1) Planning
(2) Assessment
(3) Diagnosis
(4) Evaluation
Answer: 3
Explanation: Nursing diagnosis is formulated by analyzing assessment data. A person with 2nd degree burns has:
(1) Only epidermis involved
(2) Epidermis and part of dermis involved
(3) Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue involved
(4) Only dermis involved
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2nd-degree burns involve the epidermis and part of dermis; blistering is common. Which of the following is a common symptom of hypoglycemia?
(1) Polyuria
(2) Sweating and tremors
(3) Dehydration
(4) Fruity odor of breath
Answer: 2
Explanation: Hypoglycemia causes adrenergic symptoms like sweating, tremors, and palpitations. The ideal site for intramuscular injection in infants is:
(1) Deltoid
(2) Dorsogluteal
(3) Vastus lateralis
(4) Gluteus medius
Answer: 3
Explanation: Vastus lateralis is safest in infants due to adequate muscle mass. The standard IV fluid used for dehydration is:
(1) 0.9% NaCl
(2) 5% Dextrose in water
(3) Ringer’s lactate
(4) 3% NaCl
Answer: 1
Explanation: 0.9% saline is isotonic and used for initial rehydration. The term ‘iatrogenic’ refers to:
(1) Disease caused by patient’s lifestyle
(2) Disease caused by treatment or healthcare provider
(3) Disease caused by virus
(4) Congenital disease
Answer: 2
Explanation: Iatrogenic conditions result from medical treatment or procedures. The most common site of atherosclerosis is:
(1) Pulmonary artery
(2) Coronary artery
(3) Renal artery
(4) Carotid sinus
Answer: 2
Explanation: Coronary arteries are commonly affected by atherosclerotic plaque formation. All of the following are types of shock except:
(1) Hypovolemic
(2) Cardiogenic
(3) Septic
(4) Anaphylaxis
Answer: 4
Explanation: Anaphylactic shock is considered a type of distributive shock, but in classical categories, it’s sometimes listed separately. Which of the following is not part of chain of infection?
(1) Reservoir
(2) Portal of exit
(3) Mode of transmission
(4) Vaccine
Answer: 4
Explanation: Vaccine breaks the chain but is not part of it. The purpose of incentive spirometry is to:
(1) Reduce pain
(2) Increase oxygen saturation
(3) Prevent atelectasis
(4) Diagnose lung disease
Answer: 3
Explanation: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing to prevent alveolar collapse. All the following are airborne diseases except:
(1) Measles
(2) Tuberculosis
(3) Chickenpox
(4) Cholera
Answer: 4
Explanation: Cholera is transmitted through contaminated water/food, not air. All of the following are part of informed consent except:
(1) Voluntary agreement
(2) Full disclosure of procedure
(3) Understanding risks
(4) Forced compliance
Answer: 4
Explanation: Consent must be voluntary; coercion invalidates it. During CPR, the compression to ventilation ratio for adult single rescuer is:
(1) 30:2
(2) 15:2
(3) 5:1
(4) 50:2
Answer: 1
Explanation: 30 chest compressions followed by 2 breaths is standard adult single-rescuer CPR. The primary function of hemoglobin is:
(1) Blood clotting
(2) Oxygen transport
(3) Fighting infection
(4) Maintaining blood pH
Answer: 2
Explanation: Hemoglobin in RBCs binds and carries oxygen from lungs to tissues. All of the following are common signs of shock except:
(1) Cold, clammy skin
(2) Hypotension
(3) Tachycardia
(4) Hyperthermia
Answer: 4
Explanation: Shock generally causes hypothermia or normal temperature, not hyperthermia. Which vitamin deficiency causes beriberi?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin D
Answer: 2
Explanation: Thiamine deficiency causes beriberi affecting cardiovascular and nervous system. The ideal site for adult IM injection is:
(1) Deltoid
(2) Gluteus medius (ventrogluteal)
(3) Dorsogluteal
(4) Vastus lateralis
Answer: 2
Explanation: Ventrogluteal site is safest in adults, avoiding sciatic nerve injury.

Key Highlights of NORCET 2026 Questions

• Number of Questions in This Set: 25 (Part 2)
• Topics Covered:
  • Nursing procedures & care
  • Anatomy & physiology
  • Pharmacology & medications
  • Infection control & safety
  • Emergency care & CPR

Why This Guide is Useful for NORCET 2026 Aspirants

• Comprehensive Coverage: Covers major topics in nursing and healthcare.
• Detailed Explanation: Each answer includes a short, clear explanation to improve understanding.
• Exam-Oriented: Focused on frequently asked and high-yield NORCET questions.
• Time-Saving: Candidates can revise multiple topics in one go.

Tips to Crack AIIMS NORCET 2026

1. Understand the Syllabus: Focus on core nursing subjects, pharmacology, and patient care.
2. Practice Previous Questions: Regular practice improves accuracy and speed.
3. Use Study Notes & Flashcards: Helps in memorizing key concepts and procedures.
4. Simulate Exam Conditions: Attempting timed mock tests improves time management.
5. Revise Important Topics: Infection control, CPR, emergency procedures, and nursing ethics are high-yield areas.

Conclusion

The AIIMS NORCET 2026 Nursing Officer exam is competitive, and preparation with a well-structured question-answer guide can significantly boost your chances. This Part 2 Q&A set, complete with explanations, is designed to help aspirants revise effectively and approach the exam with confidence.

For complete preparation, stay tuned for Part 3 and Part 4 NORCET 2026 questions with answers.